American Vision – October 25, 2010
Why “Contradictions” Authenticate the Bible
By Gary DeMar
The Bible (as well as the Constitution, Art 3, sec. 3) requires two witnesses to substantiate that an event has taken place (Deut. 17:6). The two-witness requirement is a safeguard for those accused of a crime. When an accusation is made and there is not a second witness, the single witness is investigated to see if he or she is telling the truth (Deut. 19:16-20). What’s true in cases related to criminal actions is also true in cases related to factuality. The Bible applies its own two-witness standard to itself. This can be seen when the issue of harmonizing seemingly contradictory events is raised by skeptics. Here’s an email I received:
“I am struggling with a few things and would greatly appreciate your input. I have read the book by Mr. DeMar and am so grateful for his courage and insight. I still have questions though. One in particular. You state that the gospel had been preached to the entire world before the destruction of the temple in A.D. 70 [Matt. 24:14]. The Scripture says that Paul, in Romans 15:20, had expressed wishes to the Romans “to come to you whenever I journey to Spain.” This was after the temple had been destroyed so how is it possible for your assumption to be correct if the gospel had not been preached in Spain after the temples demise? Please help me understand.”
Actually, it’s Paul who says that the gospel had been preached “in all the world” (Col. 1:6), “in all creation under heaven” (1:23). In Romans, he wrote that the faith of the Roman Christians “is being proclaimed throughout the whole world” (Rom. 1:8). Later he quotes from the OT stating that “their voice has gone out into all the earth and their words to the ends of the world” (Rom. 10:18). Luke writes, at Pentecost, that “there were Jews living in Jerusalem, devout men, from every nation under heaven” (Acts 2:5). Certainly some of these took the gospel back to their homeland, to the “world.”
According to Paul, he was planning to go to Spain (Rom. 15:24, 28) on his way through Rome. There is nothing in these texts that says that the Gospel had not been preached in Spain but only that Paul did not want to “build upon another man’s foundation” (Rom. 15:20). The book of Romans was written around A.D. 57, 13 years before the destruction of Jerusalem. Paul was martyred at least six years before the temple was destroyed. Writing of Paul’s missionary work before A.D. 70, Clement of Rome wrote (A.D. 30–70): “Owing to envy, Paul also obtained the reward of patient endurance, after being seven times thrown into captivity, compelled to flee, and stoned. After preaching both in the east and west, he gained the illustrious reputation due to his faith, having taught righteousness to the whole world, and come to the extreme limit of the west, and suffered martyrdom under the prefects.”
Many supposed contradictions are explained by harmonizing different accounts of the same event. Two eyewitnesses most likely will describe the same event in different ways leaving out details that the other will include. Liberals have always complained that the gospel accounts were late-date compilations designed to give theological meaning to the story of a wise man who called himself Jesus whose followers considered Him to be the promised Messiah. If this is the case, then why don’t the four gospel accounts tell the same story in the same way? Why circulate four different versions of the same story with apparent contradictions?
Otto Scott, a journalist, editor, historian, and author of ten books, who coined the phrase “the silent majority,” was attracted to the gospel accounts of Jesus’ life because they didn’t agree on every point. Scott recounts how he became a Christian after reading the gospels. Here’s how he tells it:
Well, my wife was Christian and took our daughter to church all the time. I would attend out of courtesy. One night I was reading late and my little girl came out of the bedroom and wanted to know about this business of turning the other cheek. I had no idea where that idea came from but I thought it might be the Bible. I had a Bible in the house, of course, and I picked it up and read the Gospels – all four in one swoop. It was the contradictions in the testimony of these four different men that convinced me. As a reporter I had interviewed a lot of men, and I was on the crime beat at one point. I knew that if you get four men who tell you the same story they probably are colluding because no four men see the same thing the same way. One sees one significant element; one sees another. Although there was a close resemblance in the reporting of certain incidents in the Gospels, they were not identical. I was instantly convinced. I don’t think a person could have convinced me, but those varying contemporary histories did.[1]
If contraditions authenticate the Bible, then why are so many Christian books missing from the Bible? I know the stock answer. “Apocrypha” along with the explanation that they are of “questionable authenticity” mostly because many were determined to be written later than other “inspired” works.
But what about the following list? All of these have been determined to be written either earlier or contemporarily with 2nd Peter, which IS included.
Passion Narrative
Lost Sayings Gospel Q
Signs Gospel
Didache
Gospel of Thomas
Oxyrhynchus 1224 Gospel
Sophia of Jesus Christ
Egerton Gospel
Gospel of Peter
Secret Mark
Fayyum Fragment
Testaments of the Twelve Patriarchs
Mara Bar Serapion
Epistle of Barnabas
1 Clement
Gospel of the Egyptians
Gospel of the Hebrews
Christian Sibyllines
Flavius Josephus
Apocalypse of Peter
Secret Book of James
Preaching of Peter
Gospel of the Ebionites
Gospel of the Nazoreans
Shepherd of Hermas
And then, of course, there’s yet another 104 early Christian writings that were either contemporary with 2nd Peter or later. http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/
Why are so many “points of view” excluded from the Bible?
It wasn’t until 367 AD that the list of books included in (and excluded from) the New Testament was established. How can we possibly know that the selection of books in 367 AD was an inspired selection while all of the other (129 excluded) books that were written at least 100 years before then are considered “un-inspired”?
Anyone there?
Who you looking for, JohnM? I’m very busy right now so no time for much comment.
John M,
If contraditions authenticate the Bible, then why are so many Christian books missing from the Bible?
This subject and predicate of your question do not seem to comport with each other. But I will provide you with a brief answer for what I think you’re getting at:
I have about 1000 “Christian books” on my shelves, I don’t anticipate a grand church council being called to have any of them being inducted. The same reason for this can be applied to “Christian books” of earlier centuries: they were not recognized. For example, if there were 100 older ladies standing in a gym and one of them was your mother. Then any normal thinking person would expect you, John M, to recognize your own mother out of the 100, right?. The same principle is applied to God’s people recognizing actual Scripture, inspired of the Holy Spirit, by those who recognize their Father, God, speaking His Word. If you read John 17:14 and it’s surrounding context, you will see, intellectually at least, how the authentic recognition principle works (exclusively for God’s actual redeemed people).
P.S. Flavius Josephus was not a Christian, he was a Pharisaical Jewish historian who accompanied Titus, son of Roman Emperor Vespasian, as an embedded journalist on the mission to completely destroy the city of Jerusalem in A.D. 70. This event was described 40 years in advance by Jesus is Matthew 24 and Mark 13 to signify the end of Levitical protocol Judaism. Jesus body was the new and true “temple”. The old temple and sacrifices were pre-types. He’s the real deal Lamb of God, to save covenant-breaking sinners, like me.
RRC,
That is a very good response.
RRC; The problem with your analogy is that, with the exception of Josephus (you were right on that one) all of the books on that list were considered scripture by at least some groups of early christians. Most of the books in modern bibles were selected by a panel chosen by the emperor Constantine in the 4th century. Few people today consider Constantine to have been a serious christian and his motive to “canonize” scripture was more political than religious, he wanted to end the squabbling between christian factions.
A more accurate analogy might be; A group of a half a dozen siblings point out who they believe to be their mother from a crowd, but none agree, so a policeman steps in and allows the family member he thinks is most attractive to make the choice.
A Bear,
The problem with claiming, “…all of the books on that list were considered scripture by at least some groups of early Christians,” doesn’t really hold much weight. I came across something recently regarding how some persons who read bibles with interpretive notes throughout the scriptures, regard those notes as being just as infallible as the scriptures themselves. The caution of the article was to believers not to read such bibles because it becomes difficult to discern the difference between scripture and someone’s interpretation of that scripture.
Although your analogy was comical, I fail to grasp the meaning or how that could be a “more accurate analogy.” However the books were rejected, as not being the inspired word of God (capital G), doesn’t matter as much as the unity in which those decisions have been supported by the vast majority of biblical scholars to this day.
The point was that the people that decided which scripture was inspired didn’t get the authority to do so from a consensus of the christians of the time. The Canon of the Bible was ordered to be formed by roman emperor Constantine and he decided who would compile it.
One reason the canon hasn’t varied significantly is due to the conservatism of the church. Another reason is that most of the other “scriptures” on the list were suppressed at the time the canon was made. It’s only recently finds like the one at Nag Hammadi , Egypt have allowed scholars to be able to learn what these early christians had actually written.
A Bear,
It doesn’t sound at all like you’ve bothered reading or reflecting upon the Biblical text of John 17, and you want to regurgitate some redaction/revisionist material you’ve picked up somewhere.
Are you an aquaintence of John M? The answer I gave was for him. But since you’ve inserted yourself into our conversation and accuse me of having a “problem” with my analogy, and that you’ve decided to ‘correct’ or rebuke me for my error against the omnicient liberal redactor people, then I’ll give your stuff a chew for a moment. In point form:
1.Constanctine the political hack – How do you know that Constantine wouldn’t have surrounded himself with authentic orthodox believing advisors in his court? After all, he was accustomed to them because his own mother was an authentic believer – and he would have had access to the best learned doctor of the faith to help him stand against the Arians and develop centers of learning in places like Constantinople.
2. Like we’ve already recognized, and Jesus himself and Paul teach: not everyone who identifies themself as a “christian” is necessarily one by biblical qualification (Acts 20:28). “Savage wolves” exist and infiltrate the church – they are heretics. Some call them “scholars” (ha ha! to that one- scholars of subversion, savage wolf scholars to be more Pauline). I commonly call them “liberals” just to maintain a bit of civility and decorum. So don’t worry, Constantine, no matter what his spiritual state, had good people providentially governing the councils that he called and that signed off on. Providential! a great theological term to learn.
3. Your bogey man “conservatism” – What is it “A Bear”? Do you have a problem with a canon the doesn’t vary. Once again, read John 17:14 and the surrounding context. God’s Word doesn’t change and cannot change, no matter how much that bugs a liberal.